Many of us are inclined to say that purely past individuals (James Dean, Scollay Square, my cat Zeno, anything that existed but does not exist now), though past, yet exist. Of course, they don't presently exist. But why should only what presently exists, exist? Why should that which loses the temporal property of presentness fall into an abyss of nonbeing? Surely that is not obvious. Presentism may be true, but it is not obviously true. Nor is it a position favored by common sense as some contemporary writers seem to think. Let me sketch a couple of anti-presentist considerations. I will not present them rigorously and I do not claim that they are absolutely compelling.
Purely past individuals are part of the actual world inasmuch as they are not merely possible. And what is actual exists. So purely past individuals exist (tenselessly). Or will you say that when Dean ceased to presently exist he underwent a transformation from an actual being to a merely possible one? How then would you distinguish between past merely possible beings and past actual beings? As far as I know Dean did not have any children. Suppose that is true. Still, he might have had a child. In the past, that was a possibility, though it is not a possibility now. Surely there is a difference between a past possible individual such as Dean's child and an actual past individual such as Dean. Dean was; his child never was.
Moreover, we refer to past individuals and we say true things about them. 'James Dean died in a car crash in 1955.' 'Dean's fame is mainly posthumous.' 'Scollay Square was located in Boston.' The subject terms of these sentences not only did refer to something, they do refer to something, something that exists, though not at present. Furthermore, whatever has properties exists. Dean has properties, ergo Dean exists. That is not to say that he presently exists, but if he didn't exist in any sense, how could he have properties? So a case can be made for the reality or existence of past individuals.
But this morning I stumbled upon an interesting argument from Richard Routley, who later in life came to call himself Sylvan. (Presumably because of an attraction to forests and jungles and an aversion to desert landscapes.) In any case, after beginning p. 361 of Meinong's Jungle and Beyond (Ridgeview 1980) with some question-begging sophistry that I won't bother to expose, he uncorks an interesting argument on the other side of the question, one that that stokes my aporetic fire:
Purely past and purely future items are, like merely possible items, not (now) determinate in all extensional respects: hence (applying the results of 1.19) they do not exist. Compare the items Aristotle and Polonious, and remember Peirce's question as to how long before Polonious died had he had a hair cut and Russell's as to the baldness of the present king of France. Well, is Aristotle bald now?If he is, how long has he been bald? If not, how long since he had a hair cut and how long is his hair? Since Aristotle has ceased to exist, it is false that Aristotle is now bald and false that he is not now bald . . . . Thus Aristotle is indeterminate in respect of the extensional property of (present) baldness. Hence he does not exist now; hence he does not exist.
The argument is short and snappy:
1. For any x, if x exists, then x is now determinate in all extensional respects.
2. It is not the case that purely past individuals are now determinate in all extensional respects.
Therefore
3. It is not the case that purely past individuals exist.
The argument is valid but why should we accept (1)? I have no problem with the following two cognate principles which I warmly embrace:
1*. For any x, if x now exists, then x is now determinate in all extensional respects.
1**. For any x, if x exists, then x is determinate in all extensional respects.
But I see no reason to accept the question-begging (1). After all, Aristotle, unlike Polonious, exists, but Aristotle -- if (2) is to be believed -- is not now determinate in respect of baldness or the opposite.
Suppose, however, that we accept (1). Why should we also accept (2)? Presumably because it is not now the case that Aristotle is either bald or not bald. But this far from clear. During his life, Aristotle either counted as bald or as not bald. Suppose he counted as bald. Then I say that Aristotle exists (tenselessly) and is (tenselessly) bald. So he is now determinate in respect of baldness or its opposite. He is tenselessly bald and so is now tenselessly bald.
What Routley has done in the above passage and surrounding text is merely beg the question in favor of presentism. He has given us no non-question-begging reason to accept it.
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