Commenting on an earlier post of mine, Peter Lupu brought up some themes from David Kaplan which were not quite relevant but interesting nonetheless. In my response I pointed out that Kaplan is committed to Russellian (R) as opposed to Fregean (F) propositions whereas the problem I had posed presupposes that propositions are Fregean. In this post I will do three things. I will first explain the difference between R- and F-propositions and give an argument against R-propositions. Then I will explain the 'he himself' locution which Hector-Neri Castaneda brought to our attention back in the '60s. Finally, I will explain how the 'he himself' locution is further evidence that propositions cannot be Russellian. And since propositions cannot be Russellian, they cannot be introduced in solution of the problem I raised in the earlier post.
Russellian Versus Fregean Propositions
1. One issue in the philosophy of language is whether singular terms (including pure indexicals, demonstratives, proper names) refer directly or whether they refer via some descriptive meaning that they encapsulate. The issue is not whether a word like 'I' -- the first-person singular pronoun used indexically, not the Roman numeral or the first-person pronoun used nonindexically -- has a meaning apart from its reference. Of course it does. The meaning of 'I' -- its character in Kaplan's jargon -- is given by the rule that uttered tokens of 'I' refer to the speaker. The issue is whether the reference of a singular term is routed through its descriptive meaning. For example, when Tom says 'I' he refers to Tom. But is Tom's self-reference routed through any descriptive meaning of 'I'? It should be obvious that Tom's use of 'I' does not target Tom specifically in virtue of the Kaplanian content of 'I.' For that is quite general. So if there is a sense of 'I' that mediates Tom's self-reference, it will have to be a special 'I'-sense, a special mode of presentation (Frege: Darstellungsweise).
Now if there are terms that refer directly, without the mediation of a Fregean sense (Sinn), then the sentences in which such terms occur express Russellian propositions. R-propositions involve individuals directly rather than indirectly by way of an abstract representative as in F-propositions. So if 'Tom is tall' expresses an R-proposition, then Tom himself, all 200 lbs of him, is a constituent of the proposition, along with the property that the sentence predicates of him. Such a proposition could be represented as an ordered pair the first member of which is Tom and the second the property of being tall. But if the sentence expresses an F-proposition, then Tom himself is not a constituent of it. Instead, the sense of 'Tom' goes proxy for Tom in the F-proposition.
Suppose t is a directly referential term in a sentence S. T may or may not have a meaning apart from its reference. If S expresses a Russellian-Kaplanian proposition, then the meaning of t -- if there is one -- is not a constituent of the propositional content of S: the constituent of the propositional content of S, corresponding to t, is simply the referent of t.
2. That there are propositions I take for granted. We may introduce them by saying that they are the bearers of the truth-values. But this leaves open whether they are Russellian or Fregean. I think there is a good metaphysical reason for not countenancing R-propositions.
3. The metaphysical reason has to do with false R-propositions. Given that 'Tom is tall' is true, it doesn't strike me as problematic to say that the world contains, in addition to Tom and the property of being tall, Tom's being tall. But then 'Tom is short ' is false. If 'Tom is tall' expresses an R-proposition, then so does 'Tom is short.' But then the world contains, in addition to Tom and the property of being short, a further entity Tom's being short which has Tom himself as a constituent. And that does strike me as very problematic. (And it struck Russell that way too, which is why Russell abandoned Russellian propositions!) For if Tom does not exemplify shortness, then there simply is no such entity as Tom's being short. In other words I have no problem accepting facts such as Tom's being tall assuming that all facts obtain. But nonobtaining facts such as Tom's being short are a metaphysical monstrosity.
The 'He Himself' Locution
4. Castaneda pointed out that one cannot validly move from
1. X judges x to be F
to
2. X judges himself to be F.
(2) entails (1), but (1) does not entail (2). Unbeknownst to me, a certain document I am inspecting was written by me long ago. It is possible that I conclude that the author of the document was confused without concluding that I was confused. (Example adapted from Chisholm.) In this situation I am an x such that x judges x to be confused, but I am not an x such that x judges himself to be confused.
Given that I am x, there is no distinction between the Russellian proposition which is x's being confused and the one which is my being confused. For the two R-propositions have the all the same constituents. If propositions are Russellian, then we have to say that 'x judges x to be confused' and 'x judges himself to be confused' express the same proposition. But obviously they don't. So propositions aren't Russellian. Or is that too quick?
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